D&C 104:26; “And let my servant Martin Harris devote his moneys for the proclaiming of my words, according as my servant Joseph Smith, Jun., shall direct.” – April 23, 1834
History of the Church 5:272-273; “I spent the evening at Elder Orson Hyde’s. In the course of conversation I remarked that those brethren who came here having money, and purchased without the Church and without counsel, must be cut off. This, with other observations, aroused the feelings of Brother Dixon, from Salem, Massachusetts, who was present, and he appeared in great wrath.” – February 10, 1843
Luke 11:42; “But woe unto you, Pharisees! for ye tithe mint and rue and all manner of herbs, and pass over judgment and the love of God: these ought ye to have done, and not to leave the other undone.”
Why did God have to go through Joseph Smith to tell people He wanted money from the Saints?
Why were members cut off if/when they didn’t tell the Church they bought property or had money not reported to authorities? Why would this be any business of the Church?
Giving tithes is between the Lord and the believer. When a person is indwelled with the Holy Spirit He prompts the believer to give abundantly and doesn’t need man to extort money for Him or to threaten anyone.
Why would God give Smith a revelation (D&C 104:26) to proclaim to Martin Harris personally that when he gives money that Joe would be the one who spends it as he (Smith) saw fit?
Why would God proclaim that Vienna Jacques would receive money, but whatever is left over is to be given to the Church, aka Joe Smith? Does this sound biblical or even reasonable?
Joe Smith denounced Christian churches for demanding money and said that this is what made them a false Christian church. Does it seem odd or contradictory to you that he’s doing the very thing he accused others of doing?