Topics. Book of Mormon Translation; “Joseph Smith stands out among God’s prophets, because he was called to render into his own language an entire volume of scripture…”
1 Corinthians 15:33; “Be not deceived: evil communications corrupt good manners.”
2 Samuel 22:31; “As for God, his way is perfect; The word of the Lord is tried: He is a buckler to all them that trust in him.”
While visiting the LDS site the other day I noticed an interesting claim. In their declaration noted above, they stated Smith was called to render scripture into his own language…
This obviously didn’t happen! Smith’s vernacular in the Book of Mormon was a carbon copy of Jacobean English found in the KJV Bible. If you need proof, read any of his writings not considered ‘scripture’.
Why was the BofM written in Jacobean English? Certainly the peoples in American some 2000 yrs before the Jacobean Era did not speak that way. Secondly, with many Bible translations having more understandable verbiage out there, why is it that Mormons never go near any of them? I assume it is because the BofM would suddenly not sound biblical, nor any of Joe’s other apocryphal writings.
So true! 🙂
Two things: when did the people in the BofM start speaking Jacobean English? Never, I assume. Why do Mormons only read the KJV when there are other wonderful translations? Because, Joe’s apocryphal writings would not sound biblical is my reasoning.