Mormon Dilemma 277

Families are Forever in Godhood Status 

Deseret News, 13 Mar. 1897, President Lorenzo Snow taught: “When two Latter-day Saints are united together in marriage, promises are made to them concerning their offspring that reach from eternity to eternity. They are promised that they shall have the power and the right to govern and control and administer salvation and exaltation and glory to their offspring, worlds without end. And what offspring they do not have here, undoubtedly there will be opportunities to have them hereafter. What else could man wish? A man and a woman, in the other life, having celestial bodies, free from sickness and disease, glorified and beautified beyond description, standing in the midst of their posterity, governing and controlling them, administering life, exaltation and glory worlds without end” (Deseret News, 13 Mar. 1897; quoted by Spencer W. Kimball in The Miracle of Forgiveness [1969], 246). (Lesson 10 of The Latter-day Saint Woman: Basic Manual for Women, Part A) http://www.lds.org/manual/the-latter-day-saint-woman-basic-manual-for-women-part-a?lang=eng

John 14:3; “And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.”

Mark 12:23-25; “In the resurrection therefore, when they shall rise, whose wife shall she be of them? for the seven had her to wife. 24 And Jesus answering said unto them, Do ye not therefore err, because ye know not the scriptures, neither the power of God? 25 For when they shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven.”

Question:

If Jesus went to heaven to prepare a place for us there and the Mormons are talking about having their own little place to gussy up does this mean they’re planning on not being where Jesus is at? 

Questions:

Is Mark translated incorrectly and if so then by whom?  When did this happen, and where?  What were the circumstances surrounding this infraction?  Why was this allowed to be part of the Bible if this isn’t theologically sound?  How should the correct translation read?  And if it is different than what we have to date, what are the other verses in the Bible to back up the “new” translation?