Mormon Dilemma 604

Mary the Lawful Wife of God

The Seer, pg 158; “It was the personage of the Father who begat the body of Jesus; and for this reason Jesus is called “the Only Begotten of the Father;” that is, the only one in this world whose fleshly body was begotten by the Father. The fleshly body of Jesus required a Mother as well as a Father. Therefore, the Father and Mother of Jesus, according to the flesh, must have been associated together in the capacity of Husband and Wife; hence the Virgin Mary must have been, for the time being, the lawful wife of God the Father.” – Orson Pratt

John 1:1, 14; “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.”

Colossians 1:15-17; “Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: 16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: 17 And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.”

Why? What purpose does this virile, not to mention heretical teaching serve? 

Where must the minds of these people be if this is all they can talk about? 

IF this was true then how could Mary be a virgin?