
Isaiah 42:6 “…I the Lord have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles”.
Matthew 26:28 “For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.”
Isaiah was written between BC 739 and 681.
We’re wondering…
If the Lord promised His people there would be a future person who would fulfill the role of a covenant, why did Joe Smith believe sex was the new covenant?
The wording in Isaiah is clear by using the terms thee and thine. How can polygamy fulfill this role when Isaiah is referring to a person?
If polygamy fulfilled the new covenant, why isn’t the Church today obeying the Lord instead of the US government?
In a loving manner, show your friends/loved ones how Jesus alone fulfilled scripture, and Joseph Smith did not!
With Love in Christ —
Michelle
