2 Nephi 19:1; “Nevertheless, the dimness shall not be such as was in her vexation, when at first he lightly afflicted the land of Zebulun, and the land of Naphtali, and afterwards did more grievously afflict by the way of the Red Sea beyond Jordan in Galilee of the nations”.
Isaiah 9:1; “Nevertheless the dimness shall not be such as was in her vexation, when at the first he lightly afflicted the land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, and afterward did more grievously afflict her by the way of the sea, beyond Jordan, in Galilee of the nations”.
Why does the Book of Mormon contain the italicized words from the King James Version that were added into the KJV text by the translators in the 16th and 17th centuries?
Supposedly, the golden plates were buried under the ground circa 421 AD, long before the translators of the KJV came around.
If you’re new out of Mormonism and don’t know, translators for the KJV inserted words in its text to help clarify the translation of original manuscripts. The KJV distinguished these words by italicizing them to make it clear the phrase or words weren’t part of the original.
The other problem with this example is when Smith qualified the sea as the ‘Red Sea’. Smith has plagiarized Matthew in 550 BC!
Matthew 4:13-15; “And leaving Nazareth, he came and dwelt in Capernaum, which is upon the sea coast, in the borders of Zabulon and Nephthalim: 14 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, 15 The land of Zabulon, and the land of Nephthalim, by the way of the sea, beyond Jordan, Galilee of the Gentiles”.
In this passage Jesus was quoting Isaiah and didn’t mention the Red Sea. In fact the Red Sea isn’t found in any manuscripts and it’s over 250 miles away.
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