Nephi & Peter
3 Nephi 7:8; “And thus six years had not passed away since the more part of the people had turned from their righteousness, like the dog to his vomit, or like the sow to her wallowing in the mire.”
2 Peter 2:22; “But it is happened unto them according to the true proverb, The dog is turned to his own vomit again; and the sow that was washed to her wallowing in the mire.”
Proverbs 26:11; “As a dog returneth to his vomit, so a fool returneth to his folly.”
2nd Peter was written circa 63 AD.
3rd Nephi was written circa 31 AD.
Why was Nephi using Peter’s paraphrase of Proverbs thirty years before he said this?
This passage is yet another mindless exhibition of contentions and wars with no substance. If these stories held any depth or meat to them Nephi wouldn’t have to plagiarize Peter because he’d be talking about the true circumstances of their day.
And it is not obvious that they are both using a common saying? You did quote proverbs, so I don’t understand why you can’t see this.
And since Nehpi wrote this 30 years before, it would be more likely that Peter was copying Nepphi and not the otherwise around. At least based on your scenario. But since there is no known communication between the two areas, your scenario is quite impossible.
Marvin