1 Nephi 14:25; “But the things which thou shalt see hereafter thou shalt not write; for the Lord God hath ordained the apostle of the Lamb of God that he should write them.”
Revelation 22:18-19; “For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: 19 And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.”
Nephi’s prophetic writings supposedly took place in BC 600-592.
Why would the Church dismiss the writings of the Apostle John today if God told Nephi His apostle would write it for them? Shouldn’t they embrace the book of Revelations?
Furthermore, God never gave a vision to one prophet and told another prophet to record it.
And last but certainly not least – the world apostle is Greek which wasn’t in existence circa BC 600. It’d be another two or three centuries before people were speaking Greek.
Okay one more thing – Smith claimed there was no Greek or Latin found on the plates that he supposedly translated so how does he explain this phenomenon?
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